Post by Athel Cornish-BowdenIn the past, and to some degree today, it was assumed that if a
marriage didn't produce a child then it was entirely the woman's fault.
However, if a woman finds herself married to a man who is impotent or a
strict homosexual, how is she to keep up the appearances? Getting help
from the milkman is very risky, but there are at least two other men
with the right Y chromosome that can help, her father-in-law or a
brother-in-law. In either case the man would probably be anxious to
keep it secret to preserve the honour of the family.
I dare say this did happen occasionally – anything that isn't actually
impossible probably happened occasionally – but I really can't see this
being a common occurrence.
First of all, I don't think the pressure to "keep up appearances" by
fathering a child was anything like as high as you suggest.
Historically, it was slightly unusual not have children, but in all but
the tiniest of hamlets there would have had childless couples.
In some cases this will have been because the couple never or only
rarely had sex. And yes, sometimes this will have been because of
homosexuality or impotence, and also because it marriage of convenience
where neither party had any interest in sexual relations with the other.
Bear in mind that until the 20th century, a ordinary person could not
both bring in a living wage and do all the household chores including
cooking. There simply weren't enough hours in the day. An unmarried
member of the middle classes could take in a housekeeper or a maid, but
this was beyond the reach of the working classes. Their choice was to
live with family, lodge or marry. I'm sure many marriages were entered
into purely for convenience.
However, probably more often, couples were childless of reasons that
couldn't then be explained. They were doing all the right things to
have children, but it never happened. These days this would often be
understood as infertility, and treated accordingly, but before the mid
20th century, it was simple happenstance. Or divine will if you were so
inclined.
Whatever the cause, although not the norm, it was not particularly
unusual for a couple to be childless. I'm sure it would have been
subject to some gossip – in close-knit communities, everything is – but
I doubt there would have been too much social pressure to have children.
If there was pressure, it was most likely to be within the family,
probably from the husband. I can well imagine a husband turning violent
because his wife consistently failed to become pregnant. That happens
these days, and I'm sure it did in the past too.
If there was a pressure to become pregnant, I'm very sceptical the woman
would turn to her brother-in-law or father-in-law. That means
explaining the problem to a close relative, who would probably take her
husband's side. She might well turn to own brother or father for
support, but the taboo on incest would normally stop it from going
beyond that. If a relative is involved, whether direct or in-law, and
whether as a confidant or as the real father, this involves them in a
scandalous secret that could endanger the mother and child's lives, were
it to become known. Far better to involve someone who the family
doesn't often see. Maybe she would confide in a friend that the rest of
the family don't know very well. Better still, she might get pregnant
by someone passing through the area – an itinerant labourer, someone in
the area for a wedding, a visiting tradesman. With luck, they'll never
be seen again and her secret is safe.
If the real father turns out to have the same Y-DNA haplotype as the
putative father, and assuming they're not the same person, I think it's
most likely they're very distant relatives. Y-DNA only mutates slowly,
so unless the haplotype had only entered the area recently, even if the
haplotype is rare at a national level, there were probably hundreds or
thousands of men with the same Y-haplotype in the area, very likely with
many different surnames. Before the advent of railways, it's quite
likely the real father came from the same broad area as the putative
father – even if the real father was someone passing through, he was
likely not from far afield. That means an increased likelihood of
sharing the putative father's haplotype by coincidence. If the authors
of the paper haven't properly taken this into account, this may
introduce a systematic bias of the sort you're describing. I think an
unaccounted bias of this sort is far more likely than a significant
degree of fathering by in-laws as you suggest. But we have no reason to
suppose any such error does exist.
Richard